Jambmaths question:
Make q the subject of the formula in the equation $\frac{mn}{{{a}^{2}}}-\frac{pq}{{{b}^{2}}}=1$
Option A:
$q=\frac{{{b}^{2}}(mn-{{a}^{2}})}{{{a}^{2}}p}$
Option B:
$q=\frac{{{m}^{2}}n-{{a}^{2}}}{{{p}^{2}}}$
Option C:
$q=\frac{mn-2{{b}^{2}}}{{{a}^{2}}}$
Option D:
$q=\frac{{{b}^{2}}({{n}^{2}}-m{{a}^{2}})}{n}$
Jamb Maths Solution:
$\begin{align} & \frac{mn}{{{a}^{2}}}-\frac{pq}{{{b}^{2}}}=1 \\ & \frac{{{b}^{2}}mn-{{a}^{2}}pq}{{{a}^{2}}{{b}^{2}}}=1 \\ & {{b}^{2}}mn-{{a}^{2}}pq={{a}^{2}}{{b}^{2}} \\ & {{b}^{2}}mn-{{a}^{2}}{{b}^{2}}={{a}^{2}}pq \\ & \frac{{{b}^{2}}mn-{{a}^{2}}{{b}^{2}}}{{{a}^{2}}p}=q \\ & q=\frac{{{b}^{2}}(mn-{{a}^{2}})}{{{a}^{2}}p} \\\end{align}$
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